60 Year Old Man with Submacular Hemorrhage – Intravitreal Injection?
March 18, 2009
A 60 year old male, smoker, presented to my office the other week with complaints of acute vision loss in the left eye. Past medical history was not contributory. There was no history of valsalva. Physical exam included a normal exam of the right eye and a dense submacular hemorrhage of the left eye. Fluorescein angiography did not reveal evidence of choroidal neovascularization. Would you consider intravitreal injections (anti-VEGF of your choice) now or when in the future? If the right eye showed drusen and some pigmentary changes, would this alter your decision of treating?
This is a real patient of mine. I have elected to follow him, have no evidence of CNV, but suspect he may require an injection (I prefer Avastin) in the near future. I see him weekly.
How about you?
Randall V. Wong, M.D.
www.TotalRetina.com
You might also enjoy...
- Prevalence of ARMD to Double by 2050 According to Recent Study
- Allergan Implant Delivers Dexamethasone for RVO
- Is Anti-Pericyte Aptamer Effective Against CNV?
- Is Macugen Better Than Panretinal Photocoagulation for Diabetic Retinopathy?
- An Overview of Current Anti-VEGF Protocols for AMD
Comments
Jump down to form below to submit your own comments
interesting case. would an oct help- ie, is the resolution good enough that one can detect srn behind the heme? i would consider that if i saw drusen in either eye. in the absence of drusen, it would seem far-fetched that it’s srn, and so i would agree with you and follw the pt.